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Topic: 1st buyer posts; 2nd buyer pm's. Who wins?
Message: Posted by: taoist (Nov 1, 2010 12:11PM)
In a scenario where a buyer on an item I'm selling posts on the thread "I'll take it." and minutes later another buyer pm's the same thing. Who is first? I responded to the pm as I saw it first. They paypal'd. I haven't shipped yet and the thread poster is now asking about paypalling.
Thanks,
taoist
Message: Posted by: Dick Christian (Nov 1, 2010 02:51PM)
Seems to me that the answer is "first come, first served." Don't both posts and PM's note the time and date of transmission? If so, that will determine/identify
the first responder.
Message: Posted by: David Bilan (Nov 1, 2010 03:08PM)
Time/date are on both the open message and the PM. If the PM came minutes later, you already knew who was first. For that matter, the sender of the PM might already know as well.

I've sent a "late" PM asking to be considered if the sale falls through.

Dave
Message: Posted by: Mr. Mystoffelees (Nov 1, 2010 05:37PM)
As one who has lost a couple of items just this way, I wish there were just one avenue to buy- an open offer. At least someone who is PMing to buy should notify the open thread- would save some of us from bidding without any chance of success...
Message: Posted by: taoist (Nov 1, 2010 06:13PM)
Although the PM came in literally minutes after the thread poster, I responded to the PMer without checking the thread (though I had checked minutes prior to).
When I checked the thread later I even thought it was the same person maybe because this item had received no attention previously. So that was my goof.
Message: Posted by: David Bilan (Nov 1, 2010 07:22PM)
I feel like a rabbi...

If you responded to the PMer without checking on the thread, you made an honest commitment, even if it wasn't first up. It was an honest error.

I agree that offers should be made in the open. At the very least, the buyer should post a message sayng they've sent a PM.
Message: Posted by: AsL (Nov 5, 2010 10:59AM)
If you saw the PM AND the "I'll take it" previous to contacting the person who sent you the PM, I certainly believe it's "1st come,1st serve". On numerous occasions I've came across a great deal and since I was fully aware that the deal would quickly disappear, I'd say "PM'D YOU" prior to sending the actual PM.

Is it fair to a buyer to "make him" lose a deal simply because he wants to send a decent, well-thought out PM that may take a few minutes to type? On the same token, is it fair to those people who decide to not type "PM'D YOU"? Life's all about decisions I suppose...and that's why I'm fond of the whole "PM'D YOU" (or open offer) thing...

Anyways, I'm a little late but that's my opinion. I think David hit the nail on the head.

Out of curiosity, how did everything work out?

All the Best,
Andrew
Message: Posted by: taoist (Nov 11, 2010 01:01PM)
I sold to the one who I communicated 1st with--the 1st PMer. The earlier (other) poster was a good sport about it and, in fact, I just sold him my Sidekick which was a much larger transaction than the original item aforementioned.

Thanks for input.
Message: Posted by: HerbLarry (Nov 11, 2010 01:38PM)
This one is easy. The sale goes to the one with the best figure.
Message: Posted by: taoist (Nov 17, 2010 06:37PM)
Neither were women.

Or maybe you meant the best number.
Well... they both met my asking price and I wanted to say one is the winner and not make them bid higher.
Message: Posted by: Andrew Zuber (Nov 25, 2010 03:38PM)
[quote]
On 2010-11-17 19:37, taoist wrote:
Neither were women.

Or maybe you meant the best number.
Well... they both met my asking price and I wanted to say one is the winner and not make them bid higher.
[/quote]
I'm so glad you took the bait with that joke. I was thinking the same thing but you beat me to it.