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The Bonnie Kids Loyal user Sweden (Västerås) 267 Posts |
I would say yes, but look at this:
F = m a and F - ma = 0 Are they really the same? // Andrea |
Jonathan Townsend Eternal Order Ossining, NY 27297 Posts |
Are you asking about Newton's Third law about action - reaction?
...to all the coins I've dropped here
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The Bonnie Kids Loyal user Sweden (Västerås) 267 Posts |
Jonathan,
I would like to keep the question open for a while. I knwe -anyway- that this had interested you... Andrea |
landmark Inner circle within a triangle 5194 Posts |
Okay, I'll bite.
Yes, they are equivalent statements. Jack Shalom
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The Bonnie Kids Loyal user Sweden (Västerås) 267 Posts |
From the mathematical point of view they are equivalent, but implications are different.
If you write F = ma you mean that the sum of external forces is proportional to the acceleration of the body. This is the motion equation and usually brings to solve the differential equation of the trajetcory. If you write F-ma = 0 you are giving a static equation, i.e. you say that the body is in balance with all the forces (F) and inertial forces (ma). By doing this way you can draw (for instance) the free-body diagram and you apply on it the external forces (gravity for instance) and the inertial forces (centrifugal force is a good example). Physicians "hate" the second equation and engineers "hate" the first one. Physicians say, for instance, that centrifugal force does not exist. I always loved this different standing on the same stuff, and just wanted to see if there are some personal opinions on that. Andrea |
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